Mira Loma Invitational (C only) — Anatomy and Physiology

Anatomy and Physiology · Division C · Mira Loma Invitational (C only) · 2018

119 questions · 186 points · 50 min· 7 questions from the original omitted

Time limit: 50 minutes. Test can be taken apart, but must be stapled together in correct order by the end of 50 minutes. Each team is allowed 2 NON-GRAPHING calculators. Point values are written next to each question. SHOW ALL WORK! Include units when necessary. Tiebreaker questions are indicated in the test, as well as the order they will be used to break ties.

Respiratory — Multiple Choice

Question 1

1 pt

Which of the following is the correct order of parts that the air goes through during inspiration?

A. pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoliB. larynx, pharynx, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, alveoliC. alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynxD. pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoliE. alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, larynx, pharynx

Question 2

1 pt

Which parts of the lung are NOT surrounded by cartilage?

Question 3

1 pt

What type of transport do oxygen and carbon dioxide use to cross alveolar surfaces?

Question 4

1 pt

Which is NOT a difference between type I and type II pneumocytes?

A. type I cells function in gas exchange, type II cells produce surfactantB. type I cells cover more surface area, but there are numerically more type II cellsC. type I cells can replicate, type II cells can’tD. type I cells can’t be seen under a light microscope, but type II cells canE. type I cells are squamous, while type II cells are cuboidal

Question 5

1 pt

Which of the following correctly describes what processes occur during inspiration?

A. diaphragm relaxes, inspiratory intercostals contractB. diaphragm contracts, inspiratory intercostals contractC. diaphragm contracts, inspiratory intercostals relaxesD. diaphragm relaxes, inspiratory intercostals relaxesE. none of the above

Question 6

1 pt

Which of the following is NOT a change in the body when adapting to living in high altitude locations?

A. larger number of RBCsB. right ventricular hypertrophyC. decrease in plasma volumeD. increase in number of mitochondriaE. decrease in renal excretion of bicarbonate

Question 7

1 pt

How does the partial pressure of O₂ and CO₂ in the alveoli compare to the partial pressures in the atmosphere?

A. PO₂ alveoli smaller than PO₂ atmosphere, PCO₂ alveoli larger than PCO₂ atmosphereB. PO₂ alveoli larger than PO₂ atmosphere, PCO₂ alveoli smaller than PCO₂ atmosphereC. PO₂ alveoli smaller than PO₂ atmosphere, PCO₂ smaller than PCO₂ atmosphereD. PO₂ alveoli larger than PO₂ atmosphere, PCO₂ larger than PO₂ atmosphereE. Both PO₂ alveoli and PCO₂ alveoli equal to PO₂ atmosphere and PCO₂ atmosphere

Question 8

1 pt

How does a decrease in metabolism with an unchanged alveolar ventilation rate affect the partial pressures of O₂ and CO₂ in the alveoli?

A. PO₂ decreases, PCO₂ increasesB. PO₂ increases, PCO₂ decreasesC. PO₂ increases, PCO₂ increasesD. PO₂ decreases, PCO₂ decreasesE. Both PO₂ and PCO₂ stay the same

Question 9

1 pt

Which 2 muscles are involved in active expiration?

A. inspiratory intercostals and expiratory intercostalsB. diaphragm and expiratory intercostalsC. expiratory intercostals muscles and abdominal musclesD. diaphragm and abdominal musclesE. diaphragm and inspiratory intercostals

Question 10

1 pt

What is the most common way CO₂ is transported in the blood?

A. dissolved in plasma as gaseous CO₂B. dissolved in plasma as bicarbonateC. dissolved in plasma as carbonic acidD. attached to hemoglobinE. direct movement as a gas

Question 11

1 pt

How many molecules of oxygen can 1 heme group carry?

A. 1B. 4C. 100D. thousands

Question 12

1 pt

The condition in which hyperresponsive smooth muscle contractions caused by chronic inflammation of the airways result in restricted air flow in the lungs is…

Question 13

1 pt

The condition that is characterized by excessive mucus production is…

Question 14

1 pt

The condition that is characterized by loss of alveolar surface is…

Question 15

1 pt

Smoking can be a risk factor for…

Respiratory — Short Answer

PassageFor questions 17a, 17b, 17c

During a check up to assess pulmonary function, a doctor takes several measurements from a patient: resting tidal volume is 456 ml, inspiratory reserve volume is 2208 ml, and expiratory reserve volume is 850 ml.

Question 17a

2 pts

What is this patient’s vital capacity, and what does this value tell us about the patient’s pulmonary function?

Question 17b

2 pts

Measurements like vital capacity can help us diagnose disorders like obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. What are the anatomical differences between the two?

Question 17c

3 pts

The doctor measured the forced expiratory volume in 1 s to be 1.7 L. Does the patient have an obstructive lung disease or restricted lung disease? Give your reasoning.

Question 18

2 pts

Calculate residual volume from the following data: total lung capacity = 5900 ml, vital capacity = 4700 ml, functional residual capacity = 2400 ml, resting tidal volume = 500 ml, expiratory reserve volume = 1200 ml.

Question 19

2 pts

Explain the difference between a respiratory zone and a conducting zone.

Question 20

4 pts

Calculate both minute and alveolar ventilation rate with the following data: tidal volume = 500 ml, volume of conducting airways = 150 ml, respiratory rate = 12 breath/min. Which measurement gives us a more accurate sense of gas exchange effectiveness and why?

Question 21

5 pts

What important epithelial role is defected in the airways in the disease cystic fibrosis? Explain the defect on the molecular level and its overall impact on the respiratory system.

Question 22

2 pts

Compare the intrapleural fluid between the 2 pleural layers to putting a drop of water between 2 glass microscope slides.

Question 23

2 pts

What is the role of surfactant in ventilation?

Question 24

3 pts

Explain the difference between positive pressure and negative pressure breathing. Which one do humans use?

Question 25

5 pts

Explain the sequence of events, in terms of intrapleural and alveolar pressure, that occurs after the thoracic muscles cause the chest wall to expand, and how it leads to inspiration.

Question 26

4 pts

List 2 short-term and 2 long-term changes in the respiratory system during exercise.

Digestive — Multiple Choice

Question D1

1 pt

Which of the following correctly lists the order of the alimentary canal, starting from where food enters the body?

A. oral cavity, esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus, rectumB. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus, rectumC. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anusD. pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anusE. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus

Question D2

1 pt

Which of the following correctly lists the order of the sphincters of the alimentary canal, starting from where food enters the body?

A. upper esophageal, cardiac, ileocecal, pyloric, analB. cardiac, upper esophageal, pyloric, ileocecal, analC. upper esophageal, ileocecal, cardiac, pyloric, analD. upper esophageal, cardiac, pyloric, ileocecal, analE. pyloric, upper esophageal, cardiac, ileocecal, anal

Question D3

1 pt

Peristalsis is the periodic contractions of what kind of muscle?

Question D4

1 pt

The large intestine mainly serves to absorb…

Question D5

1 pt

Bacteria in the large intestine ferment undigested material into which vitamins?

Question D6

1 pt

Which of the following would not be digested by the digestive system?

Question D7

1 pt

Absorption in the digestive system occurs mainly in the…

Question D8

1 pt

The liquid that enters the duodenum from the stomach is called…

Question D9

1 pt

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains exocrine cells that secrete mucus?

Question D10

1 pt

The lacteal is a direct connection between the digestive system and which other system?

Question D11

1 pt

Amylase is an enzyme that breaks starches into…

Question D12

1 pt

Cells in the epithelial layer of the gastrointestinal tract are connected by what kind of junctions?

Question D13

1 pt

Intrinsic factor is needed for the absorption of vitamin ____, which is subsequently taken into the cell by ____.

Digestive — Matching: Match the following hormones to their 1) release organ, 2) all destination organs, and 3) all functions. Choices may be used more than once.

PassageFor questions D14–D19, D21–D23

Release organs / destination organs:

Stomach
Duodenum
Ileum
Pancreas
Fat cells
Gall bladder
Liver
Body cells
Muscle cells
Hypothalamus

Functions:

Stimulate secretion of digestive enzymes
Stimulate the production of bile
Stimulate release of bile
Stimulates release of bicarbonate
Stimulate production of gastric juices
Inhibits secretion of gastric juices
Increase peristalsis
Decrease peristalsis
Stimulate intake of glucose
Stimulate breakdown of glycogen
Stimulate storing of glucose as glycogen
Stimulate insulin secretion
Increase feelings of hunger
Decrease feelings of hunger

Question D14

1.5 pts

Secretin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D15

1.5 pts

Cholecystokinin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D16

1.5 pts

Gastrin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D17

1.5 pts

Ghrelin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D18

1.5 pts

Leptin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D19

1.5 pts

Peptide YY: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D21

1.5 pts

Glucagon: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D22

1.5 pts

Motilin: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Question D23

1.5 pts

Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide: 1) release organ 2) destination organs 3) functions

Digestive — Short Answer

Question D25

2 pts

The numerous convolutions on the luminal surface of the gastrointestinal tract such as villi and microvilli serve the purpose of…

Question D26

3 pts

What are the names of the 3 sections of the small intestine?

Question D27

3 pts

List the 3 general steps of peristalsis, including which smooth muscles are involved and the purpose each step serves.

Question D28

5 pts

Explain the activation of pepsin in terms of chief and parietal cells and their secretions.

Question D29

3 pts

List 3 ways that the mucosa of the stomach protects the organ against the acid and enzymes that it produces.

Question D30

7 pts

Explain the process of fat absorption in the small intestine and its following transport into blood circulation.

PassageFor questions D31a, D31b, D31c

Previously, stomach ulcers were thought to be caused by general factors such as smoking or being under stress. However, after recent research, it was discovered that a major cause of stomach ulcers is actually a type of bacteria.

Question D31a

1 pt

Name the bacteria responsible for stomach ulcers.

Question D31b

2 pts

Describe one mechanism in which the bacteria causes stomach ulcers.

Question D31c

2 pts

For extra points, tell the crazy story of how the researcher studying stomach ulcers ultimately proved that the bacteria were a direct cause.

PassageFor questions D32a, D32b

Lactose intolerance affects a large portion of people, and in some cases may become life-threatening.

Question D32a

1 pt

Lactose intolerance arises from not having enough of what enzyme?

Question D32b

4 pts

What are the major symptoms of lactose intolerance? What causes these symptoms?

Question D33

2 pts

What two nutrients are lost excessively during diarrhea that makes it, at times, deadly?

Digestive — Diagram: Label the following diagram.

Immune — Multiple Choice

Question I1

1 pt

Which of the following typically occurs in a healthy immune response to a microbial infection?

A. There is a rapid decrease in neutrophil concentrationB. Neutrophilia occursC. Increased proliferation of Kupffer cellsD. Leukopenia occursE. Eosinophils begin phagocytosis

Question I2

1 pt

Which of the following leukocytes arises from lymphoid cells?

Question I3

1 pt

Which of the following is an antigen-presenting phagocyte?

Question I5

1 pt

Cytotoxic T cells are the most effective against infection by which pathogen?

Question I6

1 pt

Where do T cells mature?

Question I7

1 pt

Which cytokine do injured cells release as a signal to the immune system?

Question I8

1 pt

Which of the following correctly lists an innate immunity defense mechanism and an adaptive immunity defense mechanism, respectively?

A. Plasma cells; memory T cellsB. Dendritic cells; helper T cellsC. Basophils; natural killer cellsD. Effector T cells; memory B cellsE. Cytotoxic T cells; macrophages

Question I9

1 pt

What is the body's first line of defense?

Question I10

1 pt

Which type of T cell functions in activating macrophages?

Question I11

1 pt

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?

Question I12

1 pt

What does AIDS stand for?

A. Autoimmune disease symptomsB. Acquired immunodeficiency syndromeC. Absolute immunodeficiency syndromeD. Acquired iatrogenic death syndromeE. Abstinence is definitely smart

Question I13

1 pt

Antihistamines relieve the symptoms of allergies by…

A. Preventing the production of IgE in B cellsB. Acting as a neutral antagonist at histamine receptorsC. Preventing mast cells from releasing histamineD. Acting as a neutral antagonist at IgE receptorsE. Binding to allergens so that the antibodies can't recognize them

Immune — Matching: Answer questions 14-23 with the choices below. The answer choices may be used one time, several times, or none at all.

PassageFor questions I14–I23

IgA IgG IgM IgD IgE

Question I14

1 pt

____ Can be both monomeric and dimeric

Question I15

1 pt

____ The only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta

Question I16

1 pt

____ Suppresses responses to large particulate antigens like erythrocytes

Question I17

1 pt · select all that apply

These two immunoglobulins are phylogenetically the most ancient

Question I18

1 pt

____ Can inhibit the inflammatory effects of other immunoglobulins

Question I19

1 pt

____ The least abundant isotype, at around 0.05% of the Ig concentration in blood serum

Question I20

1 pt

____ The first immunoglobulin expressed in a human fetus

Question I21

1 pt

____ Binds to the CD23 receptor on B cells

Question I22

1 pt

____ Participate predominantly in the secondary immune response

Question I23

1 pt

____ Expressed by immature B cells before they exit the bone marrow

Immune — Short Answer

Question I24

1 pt

What term describes the method in which phagocytes move towards areas with high densities of chemical signals?

Question I25

2 pts

What is the main difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

PassageFor questions I26a, I26b, I26c, I26d, I26e

The complement system is a part of innate immunity that consists of proteins that directly kill microbes.

Question I26a

1 pt

Where are complement system proteins produced in the body?

Question I26b

2 pts

What is the name of the complex formed by the final five complement system proteins?

Question I26c

4 pts

Briefly outline how the complement system kills microbes.

Question I26d

1 pt

Give an example of an invader that the complement system would not be effective against.

Question I26e

2 pts

Besides from killing the cell, what other purpose do the complement system proteins serve in the immune system?

Question I27

2 pts

Why do mothers kiss their babies?

Question I28

2 pts

Eosinophils are normally transparent, but have an affinity for coal tar dyes due to their affinity for acids. When stained with eosin, they appear brick red. What staining method is used for this particular dye?

Question 29

2 pts

NK cells distinguish infected cells and tumors from normal cells through recognizing the changes of what surface molecule?

Question 30

3 pts

Gamma delta T cells are uncommon T cells that function in both innate and adaptive immunity. Describe how gamma delta T cells operate within the immune system.

PassageFor questions 31-1–31-5

AIDS is a serious disease that 36.7 million people in the world currently have and affects many more. Approximately 5000 new people are infected per day, and it has been declared a global pandemic and an epidemic in the US.

Question 31-1

1 pt

What is the full name of the virus the causes AIDS?

Question 31-2

1 pt

Which cells in the immune system does the virus target?

Question 31-3

4 pts

Often times, a person will test negative for the virus even though they have already been infected. Why does this happen, and what special characteristic of the virus lets it go undetected for long periods of time?

Question 31-4

2 pts

What triggers the dormant viral genetic information in the cell to activate?

Question 31-5

2 pts

What is needed to diagnose AIDS?

PassageFor questions 32-1–32-2

Inflammation is a common bodily response that can often be seen as a nuisance, but without this immune response we might have to deal with more serious issues.

Question 32-1

1 pt

Is the inflammatory response innate or adaptive?

Question 32-2

3 pts

What causes the swelling that we often see with inflammation?

Question 33-1

2 pts

What disease does this woman have?

Question 33-2

3 pts

Which organ’s function is primarily affected in this disease, and how is the immune system involved?

Question 33-3

3 pts

What causes exopthalmos, a common symptom of the disease?

Respiratory — Multiple Choice

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Respiratory — Short Answer

Question 17a

Question 17b

Question 17c

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Digestive — Multiple Choice

Question D1

Question D2

Question D3

Question D4

Question D5

Question D6

Question D7

Question D8

Question D9

Question D10

Question D11

Question D12

Question D13

Digestive — Matching: Match the following hormones to their 1) release organ, 2) all destination organs, and 3) all functions. Choices may be used more than once.

Question D14

Question D15

Question D16

Question D17

Question D18

Question D19

Question D21

Question D22

Question D23

Digestive — Short Answer

Question D25

Question D26

Question D27

Question D28

Question D29

Question D30

Question D31a

Question D31b

Question D31c

Question D32a

Question D32b

Question D33

Digestive — Diagram: Label the following diagram.

Questions D34–D48

Immune — Multiple Choice

Question I1

Question I2

Question I3

Question I5

Question I6

Question I7

Question I8

Question I9

Question I10

Question I11

Question I12