Dodgen-Walton - GA — Heredity

Heredity · Division B · Dodgen-Walton - GA · 2026

49 questions · 55 points · 50 min· 15 questions from the original omitted

Do not open this packet until you are instructed to do so.

Phones should be turned off and out of sight.

Make sure to read the questions carefully.

Let the event proctor know if you have any questions/concerns

Have fun! :))

Materials allowed: One (1) sheet of 8.5”x11” sheet of paper that may contain information on both sides in any form and from any source. The sheet of paper may be laminated or placed in a sheet protector to increase durability. Affixed labels as well as multiple sheets of paper in a single sheet protector are prohibited.

Calculators: Two (2) stand-alone non-programmable, non-graphing calculators (Class II), including scientific calculators (e.g. TI-36) are allowed.

Time: 50 minutes

Tiebreakers: 5, 6, 11, 14, 20, 22, 24, 29, 35, 40

Answer the following multiple choice and short answer questions. All multiple choice questions are worth 1 point and short answer questions vary in point amounts.

Question 2

1 pt

What determines the optimal annealing temperature for PCR?

A. The sequence of primersB. The length of the amplified sequenceC. The amount of DNA usedD. The reaction volume

Question 4

1 pt

Which model of DNA replication is shown by model (a)?

A. Conservative replicationB. MitosisC. Semiconservative replicationD. Dispersive replication

Question 5

1 pt

Which model of DNA replication is shown by model (b)?

A. Conservative replicationB. MeiosisC. Semiconservative replicationD. Dispersive replication

Question 6

1 pt

Which model of DNA replication is shown by model (c)?

A. Conservative replicationB. MeiosisC. Semiconservative replicationD. Dispersive replication

Question 7

1 pt

Which event does NOT occur in Meiosis?

A. The chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid.B. The segregation of alleles.C. Homologous Chromosomes separate during anaphase I.D. Sister Chromatids line up along metaphase plate in metaphase I.

Question 8

1 pt

If a strand of DNA has 18% Cytosine, what percentage Thymine does the strand have?

A. 50%B. 18%C. 32%D. 82%

Question 9

1 pt

What start codon initiates translation?

A. UAA - Glutamic acidB. AUC - IsoleucineC. UGA - GlycineD. AUG - Methionine

Question 10

1 pt

At what temperature does the first step of PCR occur?

A. 45° CB. 60° CC. 72° CD. 95° C

Question 11

1 pt

Which of the following cell types are haploid (n)?

A. Liver cellsB. Glial cellsC. Sperm cellsD. Epithelial cells

Question 12

1 pt

In the cell cycle, interphase can be divided into which of the following stages?

A. Gap 2, cytokinesis, metaphaseB. Gap 1, anaphase, metaphaseC. Synthesis, Gap 2, prophaseD. Gap 1, Synthesis, Gap 2

Question 13

1 pt

Which of the following steps of M phase does NOT occur in animal cells but occurs in plant cells?

A. Cell plate formationB. Chromosomes separateC. Nuclear membrane formationD. DNA duplication

Question 14

1 pt

Cancerous cells do NOT have which of the following?

A. Short lifespansB. Anchorage dependenceC. MetastasisD. Multiple unorganized layers

Question 15

1 pt

Sally is worried she has a genetic disorder and decides to get genetic testing done. After analyzing her karyotype, she notices she only has 1 X chromosome! What can you tell Sally to accurately describe her condition?

A. Sally has Down Syndrome caused by nondisjunction of chromosomes during meiosis.B. Sally has Turner’s Syndrome caused by nondisjunction of chromosomes during synthesis.C. Sally has Multiple Sclerosis caused by unregulated enzyme activity.D. Sally has Dwarfism caused by unregulated enzyme activity.

Question 16

1 pt

A single diploid germ cell with n = 18 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. After telophase I and the first cytokinesis during meiosis, what is the state of the cells?

A. Two cells with duplicated chromosomes that are 1n and n = 18.B. Two cells with unduplicated chromosomes that are 1n and n = 36.C. Four cells with unduplicated chromosomes that are 2n and n = 18.D. Two cells with duplicated chromosomes that are 2n and n = 36.

Question 17

1 pt

What are SSB’s and how are they used in transcription?

A. Strand signaling biotechnology - elongation of leading strand by placing nucleotides onto corresponding base pairs.B. Single-stranded binding proteins - used to combine short fragments (Okazaki fragments) created on the lagging strand.C. Single-stranded binding proteins - stabilizes DNA strand when it is being elongated.D. Substrate signaling biomolecules - detects the presence of different biomolecules.

Question 18

1 pt

Which of the following attaches to chromosomal centromeres in metaphase?

A. Spindle fibersB. CarboxysomesC. PhospholipidsD. Enzymes

Question 19

1 pt

The coding strand is TTCCGATATACG (5’ to 3’ direction). What might the mRNA synthesized during transcription be?

A. UUCCGAUAUAGC in the 5’ to 3’ directionB. UUCCGAUAUAGC in the 3’ to 5’ directionC. AAGGCTATATCG in the 3’ to 5’ directionD. AAGGCTATATCG in the 5’ to 3’ direction

Question 20

1 pt

Which of the following scenarios does not follow the normal flow of genetic information as described by the Central Dogma?

A. Retroviruses using reverse transcriptase to synthesize DNA from an RNA templateB. tRNA carrying amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome during translationC. Eukaryotic RNA undergoing splicing before leaving the nucleusD. Bacterial mRNA translating while it is being transcribed

Question 21

1 pt

An enveloped virus has a genome with the following characteristics: positive-sense, single-stranded with no mRNA production. Which of the following can be inferred about the virus?

A. It is a BacteriophageB. It is an RNA virusC. It is a DNA virusD. They can self-reproduce outside of a host cell

Question 22

1 pt

What direction is DNA synthesized and what type of bonds form?

A. 5' to 3'; phosphodiester bondB. 3’ to 5’; phosphodiester bondC. 3' to 5'; polyester bondD. 5’ to 3’; glycosidic bond

Question 24

1 pt

A mother has type A blood and the father has type B blood. What are possible blood types for their offspring?

A. Only A, B, and ABB. Only AB and AC. Only AB and BD. A, AB, B, and O

Question 25

1 pt

Which of the following correctly describes the central dogma?

A. RNA → DNA → ProteinB. DNA → Protein → RNAC. Protein → DNA → RNAD. DNA → RNA → Protein

Question 26

1 pt

A DNA strand with sequence 5’ CGA TTG 3’ would be complementary to the sequence:

A. 5’ GCU AAC 3’B. 5’ GCT AAC 3’C. 5’ CAA TCG 3’D. 5’ CUU TCG 3’

Question 27

1 pt

What does PCR stand for?

A. Primary Characteristics of ReplicationB. Polymerase Chain ReactionC. Primer Changing and ReplicationD. Polypeptide Characteristic Reaction

Question 28

1 pt

The structure of coiled DNA and proteins that forms in a cell’s nucleus prior to mitosis is a

A. centromere.B. chromosome.C. centriole.D. chromatid.

Question 29

1 pt

What type of polymerase is used in PCR and why?

A. DNA Polymerase because it can effectively elongate a polypeptide sequence after a primer has been placed.B. Taq Polymerase because it can effectively elongate an RNA sequence after RNA polymerase creates a primer.C. Taq Polymerase because it can withstand the high temperatures needed for PCR without denaturing.D. DNA Polymerase because it can multiply rapidly, making it able to elongate many DNA strands at once.

Question 30

1 pt

The X-linked recessive trait of color-blindness is present in 5% of males. If a mother who is a carrier and father who is unaffected plan to have 2 children, what is the probability the children will both be male and color-blind?

A. 50%B. 25%C. 6.25%D. 35%

Question 31

1 pt

What did Hershey and Chase conclude from their experiments with bacteriophages?

A. Bacteriophages were the first virus to contain DNA.B. Bacteriophages are the only way bacterial cells can obtain new genetic information.C. DNA contains hereditary information.D. Protein contains hereditary information.

Question 32

1 pt

George is working with eukaryotic cells in his lab and is observing cell division. He notices that after each round of replication, the chromosomes in the cells are getting shorter and shorter! Which enzymes could have a mutation that makes it nonfunctional based on this information?

A. TopoisomeraseB. TelomeraseC. DNA polymerase

Question 36

1 pt

What type of image is shown above?

A. KaryotypeB. Microscope field of viewC. PedigreeD. Diagram

Question 37

1 pt

Based on the image above, what sex is this individual?

A. MaleB. FemaleC. Cannot be determined

Question 38

1 pt

Based on the image above, what genetic disease does this individual have?

A. Klinefelter syndromeB. Jacob’s syndromeC. Edward’s syndromeD. Down syndrome

Question 39

1 pt

Which feature of the Watson–Crick model of DNA structure explains its ability to function in replication and gene expression?

A. Each strand contains the information present in the double helixB. DNA and RNA are structurally and functionally similarC. The double helix is right-handed and not left-handedD. Bases are exposed in the major groove of the double helix.

Question 40

1 pt

In DNA replication, how do the leading and lagging strands differ?

A. The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing stand but the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.B. The leading strand is synthesized twice as fast as the lagging strand.C. The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.D. The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

Question 41

1 pt

A fictional organism called the Sparkle Clam can exhibit either a smooth, or ribbed outer shell. Having a ribbed outer shell is dominant to having a smooth outer shell (Ribbed shell type expressed by R). The Sparkle Clam also can produce either a pink or white pearl, with the white pearl being the dominant trait (White pearl expressed by W). Which genotypes could express the cross between a smooth & pink pearl Sparkle Clam, and a ribbed & white pearl Sparkle Clam?

A. RRWW x rrwwB. RrWw x RrWwC. rrww x RrWwD. rrWw x rrWw

Question 42

1 pt

A fictional organism called the Sparkle Clam can exhibit either a smooth, or ribbed outer shell. Having a ribbed outer shell is dominant to having a smooth outer shell (Ribbed shell type expressed by R). The Sparkle Clam also can produce either a pink or white pearl, with the white pearl being the dominant trait (White pearl expressed by W). Which of the following punnett squares will correctly express the cross between a smooth & pink pearl Sparkle Clam, and a ribbed & white pearl Sparkle Clam as seen in the previous question?

	rw
RW	RrWw
Rw	Rrww
rW	rrWw
rw	rrww

	RW
rw	RrWw

	RW	Rw	rW	rw
RW	RRWW	RRWw	RrWW	RrWw
Rw	RRWw	RRww	RrWw	Rrww
rW	RrWW	RrWw	rrWW	rrWW
rw	RrWw	Rrww	rrWw	rrww

	rW	rw
rW	rrWW	rrWw
rw	rrWw	rrww

Question 43

1 pt

Which of the following states a key difference between chromosomes and chromatin:

A. Every eukaryotic cell has 46 chromosomes and 23 chromatins.B. Chromosomes are highly condensed forms of genetic material that forms during prophase, while chromatin is an uncondensed form of genetic material stored when a cell is not dividing.C. Chromatin is a highly condensed form of genetic material that forms during prophase, while chromosomes are an uncondensed form of genetic material stored when a cell is not dividing.D. Every eukaryotic cell has 46 chromatins and 23 chromosomes.

Question 44

1 pt

In a pedigree, which shape represents females?

A. SquareB. TriangleC. CircleD. Pentagon

Question 45

1 pt

Which of the following blanks fit best in this statement: In transcription, ____ recognizes and binds to the ____ on DNA to transcribe part of a gene.

A. DNA polymerase, UracilB. Promoter sequence, CodonC. DNA polymerase I, MethionineD. RNA polymerase, Promoter Sequence

Question 46

1 pt

What are the two ribosomal subunits typically called?

A. Large subunit, small subunitB. Upper subunit, lower subunitC. Part A, Part BD. Part I, Part II

Question 49

1 pt

Which of the following correctly finishes this statement: A key difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis only occurs in ____ cells, while meiosis produces ____.

A. animal, plantsB. plant, animalsC. somatic, gametesD. gametes, somatic

Question 50

1 pt

Which of the following would PCR be most helpful in?

A. Amplifying a DNA sequenceB. Finding the gram stain of a bacteriaC. Fermentation of a carbohydrateD. Initiating apoptosis

Free Response Section: Answer the following free response questions. Spelling will not be counted against you unless it is relevant-to-the-event term.

Question FR3a

1 pt

Identify the flow of information as seen in the central dogma.

Question FR3b

6 pts

Briefly explain the difference between transcription and translation.

Question FR3c

2 pts

Explain the difference between genotype and phenotype

Question FR4a

1 pt

Identify the hsp mRNA that has the slowest rate of concentration increase in response to heat-shock treatment.

Question FR2

1 pt

Describe the trend in the average concentration of mRNA I throughout the experiment.

Question FR3

1 pt

The scientists hypothesized that the heat-shock protein (HSP) translated from mRNA I plays a greater role in refolding proteins than does the HSP translated from mRNA II. Use the data to support the hypothesis.

Question FR4

1 pt

mRNAs I and II are transcribed from the same gene. Explain how a cell can produce two different mRNAs from the same gene.