Boyceville - WI Satellite — Designer Genes

Designer Genes · Division C · Boyceville - WI Satellite · 2026

53 questions · 160 points · 50 min

All multiple choice questions have been set to select multiple. There may be one correct answer, several correct answers, or all correct answers. No question will have no correct answer, i.e., all questions have at least one correct answer. All short answer questions MUST be answered in ONE SENTENCE or less. All fill in the blank questions MUST be answered in ALL CAPS.

Question 1

6 pts · select all that apply

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

Question 2

3 pts

What does ORF stand for?

Question 3

1 pt

What is the name of the structure which encodes for msDNA in prokaryotes?

Question 4

4 pts · select all that apply

Suppose that msdRNA, the RNA sequence that is complementary to msDNA, is a non-coding RNA sequence. In this case, would you expect msdRNA to have a 5' cap?

A. Yes, because 5' caps are necessary for general RNA stability.B. Yes, because 5' caps allow cells to recognize that they were produced by the cell and not by a foreign pathogen.C. No, because 5' caps are only necessary for ribosomal recognition and initiation.D. No, because 5' caps inhibit the ability of RNA's to interact with DNA bases.

Question 5

4 pts · select all that apply

An amino acid sequence encoded by the ORF leads to the sequence YMDD. What is a possible anticodon sequence for YMDD?

A. UAC AUG GAU GAUB. UAC AUG GAC GACC. UAC AUU GAC GACD. UAU AUG GAU GAU

Question 6

2 pts

Something interesting is that YMDD is also found in retroviruses such as HIV, a key element of its reverse transcriptase. What does this suggest about the evolution of reverse transcriptase?

Question 7

2 pts

All in all, the function of msDNA and msdDNA, as well as bacterial reverse transcriptases, has remained a mystery to scientists. However, there have been recent studies which demonstrate that the complex formed by the three may inhibit the function of RecBCD. How might the inhibition of RecBCD allow for bacterial "immunity"?

Question 8

1 pt

The lac operon is an inducible operon

TrueFalse

Question 9

5 pts · select all that apply

In 1968, Gilbert et. al. were studying the lac operon in E. Coli when they found a curious mutant. They referred to this mutant as lacIq, since it had a much higher quantity of the lac repressor protein. Although this is labelled as a lacI mutation, in reality, the mutation that leads to the lacIq must result from a mutation in:

Question 10

6 pts · select all that apply

Further on in their experiment, Gilbert et. al. used TONPG to select for certain mutants. TONPG will kill all bacteria capable of importing it into the cell. Thus, if a cell survives exposure to TONPG, it must have a mutation in at least one of the following:

Question 11

4 pts · select all that apply

The lac operon actually has TWO promoters for laczya, not just one! One of the promoters is active when the lac operon is active, while the other is active when both lactose and glucose are present, but with over a 100X lower rate of transcription. Why is it advantageous to have another promoter with a lower affinity for transcription?

A. The cell can metabolize lactose and glucose at the same time.B. The cell can metabolize either glucose or lactose depending on which is in a higher concentration.C. The cell can prepare for the metabolism of lactose once glucose is fully consumed.D. The cell can have higher quantities of lactose and glucose in the cell using cellular importing proteins.

Question 12

1 pt

Name this molecule.

Question 13

1 pt

A deaminase is added to this molecule. The resulting molecule is called:

Question 14

1 pt

Name this molecule.

Question 15

1 pt

A deaminase is added to this molecule. The resulting molecule is called:

Question 16

4 pts · select all that apply

The molecule you named in the previous question can be found in:

A. DNAB. RNAC. RibozymesD. DNases

Question 17

1 pt

What is the name of the bond which links NTPs together?

Question 18

4 pts · select all that apply

Occasionally, the synthesis of RNA will result in a structure known as a hairpin loop. The strongest hairpin loops will result from bonds between:

A. A:TB. G:CC. A:UD. G:T

Question 19

1 pt

Explain your answer to the previous question.

Question 20

4 pts · select all that apply

During replication, an error has occurred, but it has been excised by the MutSLH. This is what type of repair, and the excision will be repaired by which DNA polymerase in prokaryotes?

A. MMR, DNAP IB. NER, DNAP IC. MMR, DNAP IIID. NER, DNAP III

PassageFor questions 21–23

Many chemotherapeutic drugs work by targeting DNA and its repair pathways. Certain drugs may lead to the methylation of bases such as guanine, producing O6-methylguanine. Answer the following questions based on this information.

Question 21

4 pts · select all that apply

O6-methylguanine must be repaired by:

A. MMRB. BERC. TCRD. NER

Question 22

1 pt

One protein capable of repairing O6-methylguanine shares a name with a famous indie band: MGMT. MGMT works by transferring the alkyl group to itself. Which amino acid residue is primarily responsible for binding to the methyl group and removing it from the nucleotide?

Question 23

4 pts · select all that apply

In a tumor, MGMT expression is thus very common for chemotherapeutic agents which act as DNA alkylating agents. How might the DNA structure look near the gene which encode for MGMT?

A. Euchromatin, with acetylated histonesB. Heterochromatin, with acetylated histonesC. Euchromatin, with methylated histonesD. Heterochormatin, with methylated histones

Question 24

1 pt

What process separates sister chromatids during mitosis?

Question 25

1 pt

What process separates sister chromatids in meiosis?

Question 26

4 pts · select all that apply

Which of the following increases the likelihood of a nondisjunction mutation?

A. Cohesin deteriorationB. Spindle attachment errorsC. Uncorrected base-pair mutantsD. Telomerase activation

Question 27

4 pts · select all that apply

Which of the following increases genetic diversity within meiosis?

A. TranslocationB. AneuploidyC. Independent assortmentD. Centromere formation

Question 28

4 pts · select all that apply

Name this mutation.

A. 5p+B. 5p-C. 5q+D. 5q-

Question 29

1 pt

What is the name of the disease which results from this mutation?

Question 30

1 pt

In a test cross of flies, two genes A and B are crossed with each other. 4,200 flies are of a parental type, while 300 are of a recombinant type. What is the recombination frequency?

Question 31

1 pt

Using this data, we can conclude that the genes are not linked.

TrueFalse

Question 32

4 pts · select all that apply

In another cross, you find that there are 5 possible phenotypes for the resulting organism. How many genes control the phenotype for this organism?

A. Greater than or equal to 2B. Greater than or equal to 3C. Greater than or equal to 4D. Greater than or equal to 5

Question 33

1 pt

What law states that alleles separate during gamete formation?

Question 34

1 pt

An organism with the genotype AABb is crossed with an organism of the genotype AaBb. What is the probability of an organism with the genotype AAbb?

Question 35

1 pt

For the A gene, the dominant allele has a frequency of 32.8%. What is the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals? Give your answer as a percentage.

Question 36

1 pt

A paralog of the A gene is present in the same species as well. What kind of mutations result in the development of paralogs?

Question 37

1 pt

How is mtDNA inherited?

Question 38

6 pts · select all that apply

Which components are required for a standard PCR reaction?

Question 39

6 pts · select all that apply

Which events occur during PCR denaturation

Question 40

4 pts · select all that apply

What can PCR do in a lab setting?

A. Determine the presence or absence of a geneB. Amplify DNA for sequencingC. Measure genetic variationD. Identify pathogens

Question 41

6 pts · select all that apply

Which components are needed or present in Sanger sequencing but not PCR?

Question 42

6 pts · select all that apply

Which of the following statements describes Illumina sequencing?

A. Produces long readsB. Involves sequencing-by-synthesisC. Uses fluorescent signalsD. Reads are between 100-300 bpE. Detects DNA by changes in ionic currentF. Requires clonal amplification

Question 43

4 pts · select all that apply

You want to clone a gene of interest into some bacteria - let's call it gene X. To do so, you prepare a recombinant plasmid to express in bacteria. Why might the plasmid you are using clone for ampicillin resistance?

A. You can select for the desired mutant.B. You can select against the desired mutant.C. You can eliminate bacteria which have not take up the plasmid.D. You can use the ampicillin resistance gene as an enhancer

Question 44

4 pts · select all that apply

After properly utilizing the ampicillin resistance gene, what contaminating mutants might be present within the sample?

A. Gram-positive bacteriaB. Gram-negative bacteriaC. Bacteria which can already metabolize ampicillinD. Bacteria which cannot already metabolize ampicillin

Question 45

4 pts · select all that apply

To further select for your plasmid, you decide to do a secondary screening. Your plasmid also encodes GFP. What phenotype would indicate a successful uptake of the plasmid by the bacteria?

A. Glowing in the darkB. Not glowing in the darkC. Turning blue on a plate in the presence of XgalD. Turning white on a plate in the presence of Xgal

Question 46

6 pts · select all that apply

What is the phenotypic ratio of the F₂ generation created by a dihybrid cross of organisms for a gene which exhibitis dominant epistasis I?

Question 47

6 pts · select all that apply

What is the phenotypic ratio of the F₂ generation produced from dihybrid cross for a gene with dominant epistasis II?

Question 48

4 pts · select all that apply

A farmer crosses a couple of squash. He notices that in the F₂ generation of the dihybrid cross, there are 622 white squash, 205 green squash, and 289 yellow squash. What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring, and what is the inheritance pattern for the squash genes?

A. 12:3:1, dominant epistasis IB. 12:3:1, recessive epistasisC. 9:3:4, dominant epistasis ID. 9:3:4, recessive epistasis

Question 49

1 pt

In epistasis, at least one gene must exhibit pleiotropy

TrueFalse

Question 50

1 pt

What type of mutation do you think is most likely to cause genetic redundancy?

Question 51

4 pts · select all that apply

Based on the information in this question, what is the likely genotype of the individual in terms of A/B/O blood type

A. AB. BC. ABD. O

Question 52

6 pts · select all that apply

Given the information in the pedigree, what type of inheritance pattern/epistasis is exhibited by the second gene in this system (the other gene besides A/B/O)?

Question 53

1 pt

Suppose the AB individual and the A individual have a consanguineous marriage. What is the likelihood that one of their children is of type O blood?